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Why does a controlled gate not constitute a measurement?

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I have recently listened to a talk on quantum computing and was fascinated to learn about IBM Q Experience. Between the explanations in the User Guide and in Nielsen's book, I came to the following question: Why does a controlled gate not act as a measurement? In the common example of creating a Bell pair, we first bring a two qubit state from $| \psi \rangle = |00\rangle$ to $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (|00\rangle + |10\rangle)$ with a Hadamard gate. So far so good. But now we flip the second qubit onl

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    Why does a controlled gate not constitute a measurement? Ask Question Asked 6 years, 5 months ago Modified today Viewed 1k times 7 I have recently listened to a talk on quantum computing and was fascinated to learn about IBM Q Experience. Between the explanations in the User Guide and in Nielsen's book, I came to the following question: Why does a controlled gate not act as a measurement? In the common example of creating a Bell pair, we first bring a two qubit state from |ψ⟩=|00⟩ | 𝜓 ⟩ = | 00 ⟩ to 1 2 √ (|00⟩+|10⟩) 1 2 ( | 00 ⟩ + | 10 ⟩ ) with a Hadamard gate. So far so good. But now we flip the second qubit only if the first is in state |1⟩ | 1 ⟩ . This turns the state of the two-qubit system into 1 2 – √ (|00⟩+|11⟩). 1 2 ( | 00 ⟩ + | 11 ⟩ ) . How does that work without measuring the state of the first qubit? quantum-gatemeasurement Share Improve this question Follow asked Oct 19, 2019 at 8:30 DK2AX 1735 5 bronze badges 1 Hi, welcome to QCSE. It's not as if the CNOT C N O T gate "looks" at the two qubits in their different states. A somewhat unsatisfactory answer is that the qubits must maintain coherence in order to apply the CNOT C N O T gate - the quantum gate is designed to specifically maintain coherence of the control and target qubit, for as long as possible. Maybe a better answer would explain how devices like IBM's are able to apply 2 2 -qubit gate while maintaining coherence. –  Mark Spinelli Commented Oct 19, 2019 at 12:42 Maybe a little late to the party but I want to drop a comment. It is not like your unitary checks that your qubit is in 0 or 1 and then puts it in 1 or 0 respectively when we apply X. Should ask the same question for other gates too, how they are able to convert the states without looking at them. In the case of the CNOT gate, it's doing the unitary transformation but it appears that one qubit is controlling the other's state. It does, in a way, but not the way we are thinking right now. It is doing the same rotations but results look different for different two qubit states. –  Prabhat Commented Jan 18, 2023 at 10:16 Add a comment 3 Answers Sorted by: Highest score (default) Date modified (newest first) Date created (oldest first) 4 How it works depends on the choice of quantum system used for computation. For any choice of quantum system, the common theme is that CNOT CNOT does not collapse the wavefunction, i.e. force a choice between |0⟩ | 0 ⟩ and |1⟩ | 1 ⟩ , while a measurement does. A simple example (oversimplified here) uses a non-linear Kerr medium to create a CNOT CNOT gate with two photons acting as qubits. In this case a Hadamard gate ( H 𝐻 ) is created with phase shifters (slabs of transparent media with index of refraction ≠1 ≠ 1 ) and beam splitters (partially silvered glass), which produce the superposition of states. The Kerr effect is a change in refractive index based on the presence of an electric field in the Kerr medium, and when two photons pass through a Kerr medium they can experience cross-phase modulation. In other words the atoms in the Kerr medium mediate an interaction between the two photons (qubits). The upshot is that the system can be tuned such that the Kerr medium acts as the gate K= ⎡ ⎣ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢ 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 −1 ⎤ ⎦ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥ . 𝐾 = [ 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 − 1 ] . With access to K 𝐾 and H 𝐻 , the CNOT CNOT gate ( U c 𝑈 𝑐 ) is simply U c =(I⊗H)K(I⊗H)= ⎡ ⎣ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢ 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 ⎤ ⎦ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥ . 𝑈 𝑐 = ( 𝐼 ⊗ 𝐻 ) 𝐾 ( 𝐼 ⊗ 𝐻 ) = [ 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 ] . In this manner the U c 𝑈 𝑐 gate is implemented without collapsing the wavefunction. Conversely, when a photon interacts with a photon detector (measurement) it is absorbed and converted to current or voltage, collapsing the wavefunction and forcing it to choose one definite state. As noted above, this is an oversimplified explanation. Since you already have Nielsen and Chuang, you can see a much more rigorous treatment of this example in Section 7.4.2, as well as constructions of CNOT CNOT in the context of ion traps (7.6.3) and nuclear magnetic resonance (7.7.3). Share Improve this answer Follow edited Oct 19, 2019 at 19:43 answered Oct 19, 2019 at 19:36 Jonathan Trousdale 3,50210 10 silver badges 21 21 bronze badges Add a comment 0 A mechanistic way of looking at it that is sure to infuriate any genuine physicists in the discussion :) is that a CNOT is two supercooled transmons interacting as described in the Open Pulse documentation and that the mystical "observation" does not occur until there is an interaction outside that environment. Share Improve this answer Follow answered Oct 19, 2019 at 15:01 Jack Woehr 594 4 bronze badges Add a comment 0 A CNOT gate is a REVERSIBLY TRANSFORMATIVE 2-qubit conditional gate operation. How to create a 1-qubit conditional gate? Let's start simple with a single qubit conditional gate before we jump to two qubits. I find photonics are the easiest to understand intuitively; specifically, let's look at a Polarized Beam Splitter (PBS). If we shoot a beam of photons into a PBS, the beam will be directed onto path A or B based on the polarization of the photons. A PBS effectively works as an 'if' statement without "measurement:" if a photon is vertically polarized (|𝑉⟩), then reflect it into Path B; else, transmit it into Path A Measurement: we don't know which path it took until we measure at the end, thus preserving the quantum state. Reversibility: you can also imagine if we had a second PBS, we could redirect the beam back into the original path without having changed anything. In fact, in linear optics, a PBS is often used to implement a "trivial" version of a CNOT gate. How to create a 2-qubit conditional gate? If we stick with photonics, we would need to add another tool, in addition to the beam splitter: phase interference. Two photons can interact based on interference without any measurement necessary. We can leverage tools like polarization, interference, and other more complex systems to create logic that is conditional without disrupting the quantum state of the system. See this paper here. How does IBM create a 2-qubit conditional gate? IBM uses a clever combination of cross resonant behavior and gate logic. Here's a simplified explanation... Setup: We need two qubits: a Control Qubit (QC) and a Target Qubit (QT) Both qubits are in close proximity physically Both qubits are coupled/connected in a way that allows them to interact (cross resonance) Step 1: Apply a microwave pulse to the QC qubit at the resonant frequency of the QT. Due to the coupling, this induces a rotation on the QT that depends on the state of the control qubit (ZX rotation). Long story short: if the QC is |0>, we induce a +X rotation on the QT if the QC is |1>, we induce a -X rotation on the QT The cleverness: the IBM engineers use this phenomenon to induce a π/2 rotation (x-axis) on the QT. Step 2: Next, we perform an RX[-π/2] gate directly on QT. The results either add constructively or destructively to Step 1 to create a full rotation or cancel out completely; effectively, conditionally flipping a bit without ever "measuring" it. We can picture this on the Bloch Sphere; however, since we're only using two axis, we only need to picture a clock. For the sake of simplicity, let's say the QT starts at |0>. In the image below, the two columns show two possible states of the QC and the effect of the 2 steps on the QT. Step 1: If the QC is |0>, it induces a π/2 rotation which would leave QT at 3 o’clock. If the QC is |1>, it induces a -π/2 rotation which would leave QT at 9 o’clock. Step 2: We rotate (RX) the QT by -π/2. If QT is at 9 o’clock, a -π\2 rotation would leave it at 6 o’clock (|1> - bit flipped). If QT was at 3 o’clock, a -π/2 rotation would leave it at 12 o’clock (|0> - back where we started). The actual implementation is slightly more complex and includes some additional steps for error correction. Please note: I am not a physicist and this is simply my best attempt at understanding this fascinating topic! If you see anything amiss, please correct me. ❤️ Share Improve this answer Follow edited 3 hours ago answered 3 hours ago Ethan Strider 1011 1 bronze badge New contributor Add a comment Your Answer Sign up or log in Sign up using Google Sign up using Email and Password Post as a guest Name Email Required, but never shown Post Your Answer By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy. Start asking to get answers Find the answer to your question by asking. 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    Oct 19, 2019
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